Ryan Marek posted on Thursday, Aug10:13 am Just think in terms of the predictor value increasing or decreasing, which with a positive slope gives an increase or a decrease in the DV. So that means that a more negative slope leads to a lower score on the outcome, and a less negative slope leads to a higher score on the outcome, am I correct?īengt O. I have a negative slope, and this negative slope has a positive effect on another variable. I have a similar question, but instead I use my slope as a predictor. This will be very helpful, since I am investigating predictors of a negative slope. Gabriela R posted on Saturday, Febru3:31 am A bigger change in x can give a positive slope, say at 2 o'clock. With a positive slope, increasing x increases the value of the slope, and therefore will move the clock-hand up to say 4 o'clock, so still a negative slope. So a large negative intercept for the slope (slope value at x=0) means that the clock hand points to say 5 o'clock. The initial position of the clock hand is for covariate value of zero, so that it's position is determined by the slope intercept. a negative slope moves the hand clock-wise a positive slope for the covariate moves the hand counter clock-wise The clock hand can move clock-wise or counter clock-wise. A simple picture to have in mind is a clock face where the clock hand (say the minute hand) represents the slope. In this case, the higher the distress, the smaller the slope of aggression scores (i.e. if the correlation with item *a* is negative, then the higher the value if *a*, the less abrupt the slope is. So the for a positive correlation, the more distress, the bigger the slope of the aggression scores (i.e., aggression goes down faster) if the correlation with item *a* (distress) is positive, then the larger the *a*, the larger/more abrupt the slope is. Gabriela Roman posted on Friday, Febru4:37 am The value of the aggression slope may still be negative - so increasing family distress makes it less negative. Thanks very much for your help! So, given this, does a positive beta coefficient to a slope (with a mean negative value) indicate that the effect of family distress increases the rate of aggression over time? That is, aggression increases faster for higher family distress?īengt O. Could it possibly be a regression to the mean effect? That is, the higher in family distress you are (and if family distress is positively correlated with aggression at baseline), the more you can decline over time in aggression?īengt O. So here it implies that the slope has a larger negative value, that is, aggression goes down faster for higher family distress. Muthen posted on Monday, Aug5:44 pmĪ negative influence on a slope factor implies that it is lower when the influence is higher, no matter the mean of the slope. Would this indicate a slower decline in aggressive symptoms if there is high family distress? A faster decline? Or would this change the direction of the slope (i.e.,high family distress increases aggression over time?)īengt O. The standardized regression coefficient of family distress on the linear slope factor is also negative. I'm attempting to interpret the effect of family distress (high scores mean more family distress) on a decreasing linear slope in agressive symptoms (the linear slope mean is negative). Mplus Discussion > Negative Covariate on Negative Slope Mplus Home
0 Comments
Leave a Reply. |
AuthorWrite something about yourself. No need to be fancy, just an overview. ArchivesCategories |